RPT test, top octave, was Re: Aural Octaves (Jim Coleman Sr)

Charles Neuman piano@charlesneuman.net
Tue, 4 Feb 2003 13:11:49 -0500 (Eastern Standard Time)


Just to be clear: Does it really specify that the the top octave has to
make beatless 2:1 octaves?  Is this a new thing? If not, is it still true?

The reason I ask is that I dug out my handout from the Convention about
the RTP tuning test and it didn't say it quite so explicitly. It's not an
official publication, but it was pretty specific about the requirements
for the test.

What it says about the top octave is: "For purposes of this examination,
do not stretch the high treble notes more than is necessary to get good
clean sounding octaves all the way to the top."

Does that really mean "2:1 octaves need to be beatless in the top octave"?
I think in the class we were told something like, "Don't stretch it as
much as you might like."

I just want to clear up my confusion.

Thanks,

Charles Neuman
PTG Assoc, Long Island


>     Charles, Jim is just making reference to the instructions for the =
> RPT test which states that now matter how the technician normally tunes, =
> on the test they want you to tune pure 2/1 octaves on the very top part =
> of the piano. They just want you to prove that you can do it, that's =
> all.=20
>     Kevin E. Ramsey
>   ----- Original Message -----=20
>   From: Charles Neuman=20
>   To: pianotech@ptg.org=20
>   Sent: Wednesday, January 29, 2003 9:06 PM
>   Subject: Re: Aural Octaves (Jim Coleman Sr)
>
>
>   I'm a little confused by Jim's statement below, from his email on =
> Aural
>   Octaves:
>
>   >        CAUTION! For those preparing to take the PTG Tuning exam,
>   >        remember that it is required to
>   >        tune the top octave C7 to B7 as simple pure octaves (2-1
>   >        type?) without the additional stretch
>   >        which the above procedure would produce. Therfore, utilize
>   >        the 10th-17th test such as G#4-C6
>   >        and G#4-C7  to be equal in beat rate. Also F5-C6 and F5-C7
>   >        to be equal.
>
>   Does that mean the stretch suddenly ends at the last octave? Or are =
> you
>   just cautioning us not to stretch too much on the exam? Those look =
> like
>   2:1 octaves to me, so it seems like the stretch just ends at the last
>   octave, and the tuning curve levels out.
>
>   Also, Jim, I hope you'll post your comments on bass octave tuning.
>
>   Thanks,
>
>   Charles Neuman
>   PTG Assoc, Long Island


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