Which Partial ?

[Richard Moody]

The coincident partials of the 24th (3 oct + 3rd) are 10 and 1.

To prove this, multiply the bottom note freq by 10,  in the case
of C1 this is 32.7  X 10 gives 320.7, then look for the closest
note to that freq.  That would be E4 at 329.6.  Thus you have the
10th partial of C1 matching the first partial of E4  or a 10:1
ratio.  C1 and E4 forms the interval called the 24th.

Or  if you are using the 5 and 1 partials of the 17th, when you go
down to the 24th you are still using the 1 partial of top note but
the 5th partial is now one octave too low so you have double that
and use the 10th partial of the low note.

Using the 10th partial of a low string implies that you are tuning
the inharmonicity of that partial to no inharmonicity of the upper
note.  ---ric


----- Original Message -----
From: Jon Page <jonpage@attbi.com>
To: College and University Technicians <caut@ptg.org>
Sent: Saturday, November 02, 2002 1:34 PM
Subject: Re: Which Partial ?


> To try to clarify things, it's not the 2oct+M3rd, it's the
3oct+M3.
>
> So the interval would be a 24th, ie: C1 to E4.  This is a test I
use for
> the lowest octave.
>
> That interval is part of a chord I play to test: I, V in oct 3
and I, III,
> VI in oct 4, hold with sos pedal
> and play the root in the low bass. The III in the 4th oct. being
the one to
> cause the strongest beat.
> For me, this produces a louder and longer sustaining sound than
ghosting.
>
> So that was be the oct type I was wondering about.
>
> I tuned an Austin-Wieght 48" upright yesterday (ugh) and the
bass came out
> clean.
> But a D today had the lowest notes set around +4c to +6c.
Evidently the D
> didn't need as much
> stretch in the bass.
>
> Jon Page
>
>
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