Exactly. One could argue that no piano is ever fine tuned since any piano which is even the slightest out of tune requires a "pitch adjustment" and the piano then must wait to achieve stability. In the meantime I suppose the moisture from my breath alters the RH and the piano starts shifting. Tuning is always a moving target but that doesn't mean that we can't reasonably define "fine" tuning as one in which the piano stays where we put it assuming adequate skill and a stable environment. Otherwise, the discussion becomes somewhat meaningless. David Love www.davidlovepianos.com From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf Of wimblees at aol.com Sent: Friday, August 28, 2009 7:13 PM To: pianotech at ptg.org Subject: Re: [pianotech] PR follow up Either I am dimwitted, which I accept, or I am truly being unclear, which I also accept, or there is a wholesale confusion on the concept of what constitutes a "fine" tuning after a radical pitch alteration. P I think there are probably too many wits that are dim, and enough minds that are unclear, for all of us to get confused. :) But the question still remains, at what point does the piano get "fine tuned"? How long does it have to sit, and how many passes do you have to go through, before you can define the piano as having been "fine tuned"? Using your criteria, it seems that no one could ever do that on any piano. Wim -----Original Message----- From: PAULREVENKOJONES at aol.com To: pianotech at ptg.org Sent: Fri, Aug 28, 2009 3:54 pm Subject: Re: [pianotech] PR follow up In a message dated 8/28/2009 8:34:02 P.M. Central Daylight Time, wimblees at aol.com writes: I pitch raised and fine tuned it I say, "No you didn't. You tuned it adequately". This is my only point, the confusion between fine and adequate tuning. Whatever the causes, whatever the methods, whatever the skills, whatever the piano, whatever the number of "passes", whatever, whatever, whatever. Maybe it makes no difference whatsoever. Either I am dimwitted, which I accept, or I am truly being unclear, which I also accept, or there is a wholesale confusion on the concept of what constitutes a "fine" tuning after a radical pitch alteration. P _____ -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: <http://ptg.org/pipermail/pianotech.php/attachments/20090828/594e3424/attachment-0001.htm>
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