At the end of the year I deduct all my business miles, as a business expense, at whatever the governments going rate is for that year. I can't believe that it's possible to both charge the customer for those miles and then deduct them as well. Is it? I would think that it's either one or the other. Which one benefits us the most? -- Geoff Sykes -- Assoc. Los Angeles -----Original Message----- From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf Of Cy Shuster Sent: Monday, May 07, 2007 10:11 PM To: Pianotech List Subject: Re: charge for time? Most customers know the IRS mileage rates for business expenses, as it's the rate they get back when they use their car for business: http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/article/0,,id=163828,00.html This is a good thing for them, so they think of it kindly, and it has an independent rationale (rather than being an arbitrary fee). I charge about half of that as a separately listed mileage fee for trips of more than about half an hour away from home. I set my trip odometer to zero at home, and note what it is when I get onsite, and charge for the round trip. If the price of gas goes way up, I adjust the rate accordingly. By using the round trip, it's pretty easy for customers to verify with Mapquest. I also split the charge between all customers on the same day (because I schedule them in the same area). This encourages them to find other customers for me, and it's a win/win/win for all of us. Dan Levitan has a great concept to use: establish a "policy". This lets you make exceptions, without rolling over completely. For example, "My policy is to charge for mileage on out-of-town trips, but in this case, Mrs. Jones, I'm waiving it for you.". --Cy-- -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/20070507/5305abbe/attachment.html
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