harmonics vs. partials

[Tim Hoover]

Oops...got my own terminology messed up before thinking. 1st partial is
fundamental...2nd partial is 1st OVERTONE.

Tim
----- Original Message -----
From: "Tim Hoover" <tim@timhoover.com>
To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
Sent: Monday, July 23, 2001 12:35 PM
Subject: Re: harmonics vs. partials


> Close...the 1st partial is the fundamental, the 2nd partial is the 1st
> harmonic...etc.
>
> Tim Hoover
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Ron Newman" <ronman@imt.net>
> To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
> Sent: Monday, July 23, 2001 12:00 PM
> Subject: harmonics vs. partials
>
>
> > Hello all,
> > I dimly remember from school something about the term "partial" not
being
> > synomonous with the term "harmonic", i.e. the fundamental is harmonic 1,
> > but partial 0, harmonic 2 is partial 1, etc.
> >
> > Am I making this up?  Is the difference in meaning consistently adhered
to
> > in the documentation for electronic tuning devices?
> >
>