Hi Richard I think the two graphs and accompanying paragraphs showing the vibration decay for both single and double string behavior pretty clearly show there is a difference in decay rate and character when both strings are unmuted. Coupled motion of two or more oscillators in the same system is clearly defined in a host of relevant physics books. books. A paper like Weinreics assumes the reader already knows what coupled motion is. Benades book, "Fundementals of Musical Acoustics" is an easy to read book which describes these things nicely. Jim Ellis has written at least an article or two in the journal that touches on this closely enough to get the idea as well. I am not sure what constitutes proof for you in this matter. But coupled motion of strings in pianos is an established fact. I am curious to know why you think it does not. Cheers RicB What is a "capacitive vibration probe" Why are the measurements from this superseding a microphone? How accurate is it? Have you ever tried it? So where in the paper is the definition or a precise explanation of couplemotion? Basically, I don't think it happens in pianos,,,I didn't see theproof there. Without proof there is no sense in believing in it. ( wonderwhat that looks like in Latin?) : ) R moody Hi Richard, Check out the article from 1979 in the Scientific American. I believe it is titled "The Coupled Motion of Piano Strings". Also see this link: http://www.speech.kth.se/music/5_lectures/weinreic/strings.html And read the next two linked pages after it. Also try a google search on coupled motion of piano strings. Perhaps there has been enough scientific research done to accept that coupling of the strings does really happen.
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