>
> I beg to differ!! It is ascientific fact that our bodies
>are about 97% water. How can water not sympathetically vibrateto a
>frequency that it is exposed to, and when that does take place who
>knows what happens in cells?
JD writes:
>>What on earth does that mean? To start with it is nonsense to speak
of sympathetic vibration of water or air or anything that does not
have a natural resonant frequency.
I must disagree. Sympathetic doesn't mean resonant. Microwave ovens can cause water to boil, simply by subjecting it to a fast enough vibration. It does this by reversing polarity fast enough to cause sufficient friction to lower the vapor pressure. All structures have a resonant period, even if we don't "hear" it.
>>And to suggest that a certain
frequency has some universal good effect on the human frame, however
fat or thin or full of hot air that frame may be, is pure humbug.
What was suggested was the possibility. I, for one, believe that there is more to existence that what humans, with their five senses, can overtly perceive. However, if you can offer proof that human physiology is impervious to vibrations, I am all ears.
Regards,
Ed Foote RPT
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