I'm aware of the logical regression of this argument, but thought that perhaps there was a more facile way to distinguish between fine and adequate after radical pitch adjustment in order to not mislead ourselves. I guess part of my question back to you is "how long" will the piano remain stable after a radical pitch alteration then "tuning" of some sort. On the concert stage, or Johnny's home piano, the adequate/fine distinction becomes clearer, don't you think? P In a message dated 8/28/2009 10:04:33 P.M. Central Daylight Time, davidlovepianos at comcast.net writes: Tuning is always a moving target but that doesn’t mean that we can’t reasonably define “fine” tuning as one in which the piano stays where we put it assuming adequate skill and a stable environment. Otherwise, the discussion becomes somewhat meaningless. -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: <http://ptg.org/pipermail/pianotech.php/attachments/20090828/8020a0f4/attachment.htm>
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