Good morning folks, I had a question from my apprentice that someone on the list may be able to help me with. We all know that vibrating strings divide up into segments with lengths approximately equal to fractional portions, i.e. ½, 1/3, ¼, 1/5, 1/6, etc. (we’re not even taking inharmonicity into account at this level.) His question is, “Why does the string divide into all of the different available fractional segments and not just even multiples of two?” I was hoping for a much better answer than just, “Because it does” but Benade, Helmholtz and Rayleigh, the best I can tell, all assume this to be a fact and I don’t really find the “why.” Any thoughts? Allan Allan L. Gilreath, RPT Registered Piano Technician Allan Gilreath & Associates, Inc. The Piano Experts PO Box 1133 - Calhoun, GA 30703 2612 Hwy 41 S - Calhoun, GA 30701 allan at allangilreath.com - www.allangilreath.com phone 706 602-7667 - fax 706 602-0979 -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/20070629/205ed6b5/attachment-0001.html
This PTG archive page provided courtesy of Moy Piano Service, LLC