John: A cent is 1/100th of a semitone. dp David M. Porritt dporritt at smu.edu -----Original Message----- From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf Of John Delmore Sent: Monday, June 19, 2006 1:39 PM To: 'Pianotech List' Subject: RE: Doppler puzzle Hi Vladen-- Did I learn, incorrectly, that "1 cent" is defined as one one-hundredth of the Hz difference between one note and an adjacent semi-tone? Or, are the cents "tempered"? In the first case, the value of each cent is constant between semi-tones, i.e. one cent above a tone is equal in Hz to the cent below the next semi-tone. In the second case, the "first" cent is not equal in Hz to the "last" cent. I'm a newbie with more mathematical sense than piano sense, so I just want to get it right!! JD
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