Alan and David on F3/A4

Kent Swafford kswafford@earthlink.net
Mon, 9 Jan 2006 11:40:51 -0600


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On Jan 9, 2006, at 10:57 AM, BobDavis88@aol.com wrote:
> Not meaning to embarrass anyone, but just to avoid confusion to =20
> those learning the trade, this is not correct. A perfectly tuned =20
> 440 A4 on the piano produces a second partial which is slightly =20
> sharp of 880. IF the fork produces 880 at A5 (which has recently =20
> been called into question), we would have to bring A4 DOWN (under =20
> 440) to match its 2nd partial to the fork's 2nd partial.
>
> Bob Davis


Who just said this subject was easy?   8^)

Let's see if I can get it right. Here are a few readings taken this =20
morning of a John Walker A fork and a Yamaha grand. They show that =20
Bob is correct. No obfuscations. No smoke and mirrors.

The first attached graphic shows an RCT Pianalyzer readout of an A4 =20
tuning fork. Note that the Inharmonicity column shows uniformly zero =20
inharmonicity.

=EF=BF=BC

The second attached graphic shows an RCT Pianalyzer readout of a =20
piano's A4. If the 2nd partials from the two graphs were tuned =20
together (as would be the case using F3 as a test note to tune the =20
two together), then there would be a 1.2 cent offset at the =20
fundamental. That is, if the piano A's 2nd partial were tuned down to =20=

match the 0.0 of the fork's second partial, then the piano's A would =20
be flat by 1.2 cents.

If this were on the PTG tuning exam, the examinee would have used up =20
a substantial portion of the tolerance in doing so. Please use F2 to =20
match the fundamentals of the pitch source and the piano's A when =20
setting pitch.


=EF=BF=BC


Kent


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