6:3 bass octaves---why?

SidewaysWell1713@aol.com SidewaysWell1713@aol.com
Thu, 28 Nov 2002 15:37:39 EST


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In a message dated 11/27/02 8:53:25 PM Pacific Standard Time, Tvak@aol.com 
writes:


> OK.  I can tune a 6:3 octave in the bass.  But why?  Musically speaking, why 
> 
> a 6:3 octave?  Why would we choose to make sure that THOSE two partials are 
> 
> in tune?  Why wouldn't the single or double octave be more important in 
> musical terms?
> 
> Musically speaking, why wouldn't the 2:1 octave rule throughout?  I could 
> even see the musical rationale for a 4:2 octave in the bass, making sure 
> that 
> the the double octave is clean, but why make the octave + 5th be the 
> determining factor in that area of the piano? 
> 
> When I think about this as a musician, it doesn't add up to me.
> 
> I do it.  But I don't know why...
> 
> Straighten me out,
> 
> Tom S
> 

6:3 octaves for the bass are only a general recommendation.  It's what 
programs like the FAC program shoot for but of course, if you tune what Ed 
Foot calls "JUNK", the kind of piano every manufacturer from Steinway on down 
make, that may or may not be the best option.

The partial which is an octave and 5th above the fundamental is very strong 
on most bass strings.  In the lowest strings, the double octave and 5th is 
very strong.  "The squeaky wheel gets the grease" idea applies here.  The 
whole reason for tempering is to resolve the cap or "comma" between the 
octave and the 5th.  Therefore, tuning octaves which tend to resolve that 
problem make the piano sound better, both higher and lower.

Richard Brekne has recently done some work along these lines.  I've done 
essentially the same thing for some 20 years.  Of course, Ed Foote, who 
thinks he is always right about everything, says my octaves, "don't make 
sense at all".  See my website, learn to do what I do and find out for 
yourself.

Bill Bremmer RPT
Makes no sense at all

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