No, its the varying overtone sequence which causes different instruments to sound different. --- Kdivad@AOL.COM wrote: > In a message dated Fri, 2 Aug 2002 8:10:24 AM > Eastern Standard Time, mfarrel2@tampabay.rr.com > writes: > > > > > > > Why does a flute sound like a flute? Why does an > obo sound like an obo? Why does a guitar sound like > a guitar? And last, but certainly not least, why > does a piano sound like a piano? > > > > Does anyone have a simplistic explanation for what > is the cause of unique sounds/tones among various > instruments? If you play A4 at a pitch of 440 Hz on > any instument, you will hear the pitch of 400 Hz. > But they will all sound different. So I guess they > all do something different to the soundwave that > reaches your ear. What is that difference? How does > a speaker > > reproduce these differences of they only move in > and out? > > > > Thanks for any thoughts. > > > > Terry Farrell > > > > > > > > Terry, a friend of mine attended a college course > where the instructor challanged the class to > determine the type of instrument being played just > by listening to a recorded tone (A 440) of each > instrument with the attack and decay portion of the > tone removed. No one in the class could distinguish > any of the instruments. I am not sure he is correct > but I wonder if what he said is perhaps a clue as to > one reason we can recognize different instruments. > > David Koelzer > Vintage Pianos > DFW > __________________________________________________ Do You Yahoo!? Yahoo! Health - Feel better, live better http://health.yahoo.com
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