compression waves

Phillip L Ford fordpiano@lycos.com
Fri, 23 Nov 2001 16:30:52 0000


I have been following this discussion for some days and I
have to confess it is starting to tax my limited powers of
concentration.  Forgive me for being the class dunce and
requiring energy being expended to drag me along, but could
someone please explain to me the utility or application of
the results of this discussion.  As I see it the items on
the table are:

1.  Are longitudinal modes in a real piano string determined
by the speaking length or the total length?
2.  Are the vibrations in the 'duplex' portions of the string
caused by transverse vibration of the speaking length of the
string and/or soundboard or by longitudinal vibration of the
string, which seems to be caused by unknown means?
3.  Are the vibrations excited in the duplex portions
transverse or longitudinal?
4.  Do the vibrations in the 'duplex' portions of the string,
caused by whatever means cause the speaking length to vibrate
in its own fundamental and harmonics or in the fundamental
and harmonics of the 'duplex'?

If this summary is incorrect would someone please correct me.
If this summary is correct would someone please explain to me
how answering any or all of the above questions would
influence the scale design of a real piano.

Phil

---
Phillip Ford
Piano Service & Restoration
1777 Yosemite Ave - 215
San Francisco, CA  94124

>Well... because everywhere I run into this experiment the results are the same.
>The longitudinal frequency is determined by the speaking length, and the
>frequencies propagate unhindered through the whole length of the medium. I have
>found this example in about 15 different university physics websites so far.
>

>
>--
>Richard Brekne
>RPT, N.P.T.F.
>Bergen, Norway
>mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no
>
>
>




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