using beats to tune

Tvak@AOL.COM Tvak@AOL.COM
Thu, 15 Nov 2001 08:40:19 EST


Did I misinterpret something that was posted recently in the discussion 
regarding temperaments?  I was surprised to learn that ET did not really 
exist prior to 1917.  Now, the part I'm unclear on: I believe that it was 
stated that this treatise, published in 1917, was the first to utilize the 
concept of listening to beats in order to tune a temperament.  

First of all, is the above information correct?  And if it's true that tuners 
didn't use beats to tune a piano prior to 1917,  what did they listen to?  I 
can't imagine.  (I must have misunderstood the information posted.)  
Certainly, tuning unisons could not be done without eliminating beats.   
Perhaps tuners didn't use coincidental partials to tune prior to 1917?

Straighten me out!

Tom Sivak


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