Richard wrote: > > So Bach probably didnt write (in my opinion) for any particular > temperament in the sense I get from your question... more likely he > was writting in the new (at that time) genre of temperament thinking. OK. But if he was "writing in the new genre of temperament thinking", as you say, then it's likely that his compositions were influenced by the (then) current thinking on temperaments. Would everyone agree with that idea? I'm trying to get a sense of exactly what people are arguing about. :) Charles
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