At the risk of getting caught in the crossfire, let me ask a question about this. First of all, if I understand what's going on, it seems that Ed responded to Tom's statement that composers to do not "compose in temperaments". Ed offered his own evidence of how composers were "influenced by the tuning of their times". So let me ask: Isn't Bach's Well-Tempered Clavier evidence enough of Ed's point? I mean, wasn't it written for, and wasn't it a demonstration of, a particular temperament? Please correct me (gently) if I'm wrong. Respectfully, Charles Neuman PTG Assoc, Long Island - Nassau
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