resultant tones

Farrell mfarrel2@tampabay.rr.com
Thu, 22 Feb 2001 10:08:16 -0500


Yes. A440. Actually, one cent flat from 440 Hz. Is my SAT goofy by one cent?

Terry Farrell
Piano Tuning & Service
Tampa, Florida
mfarrel2@tampabay.rr.com

----- Original Message -----
From: "Michael Jorgensen" <Michael.Jorgensen@cmich.edu>
To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2001 4:32 AM
Subject: Re: resultant tones


> I once heard from a theory teacher that a dial tone in the United States
is a
> difference tone and some people hear it as two distinct high treble
pitches.  I
> hear one tone equal to F# 2.  Is there anybody on this list who hears it
> differently?
>
> -Mike Jorgensen
>
> Richard Moody wrote:
>
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: Richard Brekne <Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no>
> > To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
> > Sent: Tuesday, February 20, 2001 10:42 AM
> > Subject: Re: resultant tones
> >
> > >
> > >
> > > Richard Moody wrote:
> > >
> > > >  I don't know what the difference would be of a tone between say 100
cps and
> > 130
> > > > cps as compared to 400 cps and 430 cps.
> > >
> > > Now thats an interesting question... I wonder if there is a difference
in
> > resultant
> > > tones of same frequencies created by differing fundementals, and if
so... why
> > and
> > > what kind of differences there are.
> > >
> > >
> > > --
> > > Richard Brekne
> >
> > As long as we are on it, what then would be the difference between say
22,000
> > and 22,440 ?   Or are there audible resultants from two supersonic
frequencies?
> > Would they have to be loud or very loud and how loud would the
resultants be?
> > Perhaps two dog whistles would shed light.  No two dog whistles can
possible be
> > the same freq.
> > The diff between the two above freqs is about 34 cents ---ric
>
>



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