I once heard from a theory teacher that a dial tone in the United States is a difference tone and some people hear it as two distinct high treble pitches. I hear one tone equal to F# 2. Is there anybody on this list who hears it differently? -Mike Jorgensen Richard Moody wrote: > ----- Original Message ----- > From: Richard Brekne <Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no> > To: <pianotech@ptg.org> > Sent: Tuesday, February 20, 2001 10:42 AM > Subject: Re: resultant tones > > > > > > > Richard Moody wrote: > > > > > I don't know what the difference would be of a tone between say 100 cps and > 130 > > > cps as compared to 400 cps and 430 cps. > > > > Now thats an interesting question... I wonder if there is a difference in > resultant > > tones of same frequencies created by differing fundementals, and if so... why > and > > what kind of differences there are. > > > > > > -- > > Richard Brekne > > As long as we are on it, what then would be the difference between say 22,000 > and 22,440 ? Or are there audible resultants from two supersonic frequencies? > Would they have to be loud or very loud and how loud would the resultants be? > Perhaps two dog whistles would shed light. No two dog whistles can possible be > the same freq. > The diff between the two above freqs is about 34 cents ---ric
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