Most common sence statement I've read on subject. ( not pure science ) Given the nature of a tuning pin, and the difficulty of moving it a minute distance, what are the chances of returning it to exactly the same place more than once. If in fact the pin does stop in a different place, and still produces an acceptable unison each time, then I assume that the theoretical numbers really are moot. e.g. .o5 flat, or .o5 sharp of top dead centre, does it amount to enough for the ear to care?? ( .o5, just a number for example ) Are all the violins in a symphony at any time exactly in tune, or is the fact that there is some difference, which produces a chorus effect, desireable for producing a complex wave, therby making a bigger overall effect. ( 40 piece choir, also ) Obviously, striving for perfection will bring us closer, so we should try. Also, just wondering. Wimblees@AOL.COM wrote: > In a message dated Sun, 23 Dec 2001 2:58:04 PM Eastern Standard Time, "pianolover 88" <pianolover88@hotmail.com> writes: > > > I wonder if we were measure an octave that had been tuned aurally, say, > > G#1-G#2 with and EDT such as a SAT III, make note of the precice cents > > deviations, then de-tune ONLY the lower note, if the Aural only tuner could > > restore it to the EXACT same position? Would it likely be a little different > > with each attempt? Since tuning is NOT a perfect science, would it really > > matter? Just wondering. > > > > Terry > > > > _______ > > If it is done right, with all the aural checks you know, the result shouldbe the same. > > Wim > __________________________________________________________ > > Get your FREE download of MSN Explorer at http://explorer.msn.com/intl.asp.
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