At 5:51 pm +0100 29/4/07, RicB wrote: >Unfortunatly, you can not calculate the change in frequency for >change in string deflection this way. Or so I am told by a few of >the worlds physisists. Please see the following for what according >to these is a more correct way of doing this.Ê > ><http://www.pianostemmer.no/files/String%20deflection_files/brekne.doc> Your "world's physicist", in the file above, uses Pythagoras' theorem and no other principle, just as I did, to calculate the changes in length. The only difference in his equations is that he takes into account a change in length behind the bridge, considered as a violin bridge and not a piano bridge. Clearly some slight difference in the results will arise if that is added in, with corrections for the actual disposition of the string on a real bridge, just as the re-angling of the dogleg 1/2mm lower round the slanting front pin on a real piano bridge will make a difference, but I'm at a loss to understand why you consider your famous person's Pythagorean theorem so superior to mine and intrigued to see your worked example and results based on this document. If, for instance, you take C76 with a speaking length of 100mm, as I proposed, and take into account a back-length of 50mm, with an initial deflection of +1.5mm (i.e the soundboard bridge is 1.5mm above the straight line from hitch-plate bearing to top bridge), what exact results do you get, using your valued equations, when you force the string down 1/2mm into the wood of the bridge at the front pin? JD
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