1st partial

[Fred S. Sturm]

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Wim,
    What kind of piano are we talking about? Steinway B or Hamilton? (Or
somewhere between). Smaller the instrument, shorter the bass strings,
equals much less lower partials as part of the tonal spectrum,
regardless of tunings, voicing or whatever (though some scales are
better than others). And, BTW, doing what you describe will excite ALL
the partials of the upper note. How prominent the first partial of the
upper note is will vary. Should at least be present, though. I walked
next door to a vacant classroom and did what you describe on a Steinway
B, and heard the first partial of the upper note all the way to A0/A1.
    All that said, do your best to humor the guy. I doubt very much he
knows what the heck he's talking about (a little knowledge is a
dangerous thing - he picked up some notion off a wall somewhere. I once
spent considerable time explaining to our bassoon professor why the bass
on his piano didn't match his little electronic tuner. All my notes were
flat. Fancy that! He had been trying to match his tuner when playing his
bassoon - first partials, that is - and even teaching his students the
same malarky. Like I said, a _little_ knowledge . . .)
Regards,
Fred Sturm
University of New Mexico

Wimblees@aol.com wrote:

> One of the piano profs called me into his office and asked if I could
> tune the 1st octave so that more of the 1st partial can be heard.
>
> He played C2 while holding down C3, and the first partial sounded on
> C3. But when he held down C2, and played C1, the first partial wasn't
> there. Such was also the case in all the notes from A0 - B1.
>
> How can I tune that first octave to have the first partial sound on
> the octave above?
>
> I use a SATIII, using the program from Sanderson.
>
> Wim

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