1st partial

[Scott Thile]

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This test sounds backward to me. I wonder if he heard a demonstration of
holding C1 and playing C2 hard to excite the 1st partial and got mixed up?
I don't believe you can tune so more partial can be heard anyway. I would
think that's more a mater of scale design and voicing than tuning.

Scott
  -----Original Message-----
  From: caut-bounces@ptg.org [mailto:caut-bounces@ptg.org]On Behalf Of
Wimblees@aol.com
  Sent: Thursday, October 31, 2002 2:45 PM
  To: caut@ptg.org
  Subject: 1st partial


  One of the piano profs called me into his office and asked if I could tune
the 1st octave so that more of the 1st partial can be heard.

  He played C2 while holding down C3, and the first partial sounded on C3.
But when he held down C2, and played C1, the first partial wasn't there.
Such was also the case in all the notes from A0 - B1.

  How can I tune that first octave to have the first partial sound on the
octave above?

  I use a SATIII, using the program from Sanderson.

  Wim

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