1st partial

Isaac OLEG oleg-i@wanadoo.fr
Fri, 1 Nov 2002 23:15:55 +0100


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The question is strangely expressed, but I guess the teacher don't like the
tone of the basses.

We use many artifacts (each its own) on bass tuning to give the impression
of more full tone than it is really.

Beside that, non responsive hammer, keybed unseated, bad regulation, will
always give an awful weak tone in the basses.

I can't remember where I've seen the demonstration of that , but 1st partial
of the big bass strings is produced (or reinforced on large grand's may be)
by "phantom vibes" that appears created by "beats between the highest
partials , the same process than the phantom octave sounding one octave
below on organ or a good grand when playing a fifth in the octave 2.

It may well be helped by an optimum string tension equalization while
tuning, my guess being that when you tune and you hear that very precise
spot where the sound is the stronger and the longer at the same time, that
mean the tension on the 2 sides of the bridge is evened, and the bridge is
then more responsive. (may be something about the other string's segment too
?)

No real data to prove the point, but I use tone to know when the tension are
equalized, and it is even not necessary to hardly settle the pin if so.

Anyway not 2 tuners tune the same tone, even on big unichords the tone vary
from one to another.

IZaac OLEG Zoreil

FRANCE
PARIS (Nicest town on earth)


  -----Message d'origine-----
  De : caut-bounces@ptg.org [mailto:caut-bounces@ptg.org]De la part de Fred
S. Sturm
  Envoye : jeudi 31 octobre 2002 23:17
  A : College and University Technicians
  Objet : Re: 1st partial


  Wim,
      What kind of piano are we talking about? Steinway B or Hamilton? (Or
somewhere between). Smaller the instrument, shorter the bass strings, equals
much less lower partials as part of the tonal spectrum, regardless of
tunings, voicing or whatever (though some scales are better than others).
And, BTW, doing what you describe will excite ALL the partials of the upper
note. How prominent the first partial of the upper note is will vary. Should
at least be present, though. I walked next door to a vacant classroom and
did what you describe on a Steinway B, and heard the first partial of the
upper note all the way to A0/A1.
      All that said, do your best to humor the guy. I doubt very much he
knows what the heck he's talking about (a little knowledge is a dangerous
thing - he picked up some notion off a wall somewhere. I once spent
considerable time explaining to our bassoon professor why the bass on his
piano didn't match his little electronic tuner. All my notes were flat.
Fancy that! He had been trying to match his tuner when playing his bassoon -
first partials, that is - and even teaching his students the same malarky.
Like I said, a _little_ knowledge . . .)
  Regards,
  Fred Sturm
  University of New Mexico
  Wimblees@aol.com wrote:

    One of the piano profs called me into his office and asked if I could
tune the 1st octave so that more of the 1st partial can be heard.
    He played C2 while holding down C3, and the first partial sounded on C3.
But when he held down C2, and played C1, the first partial wasn't there.
Such was also the case in all the notes from A0 - B1.

    How can I tune that first octave to have the first partial sound on the
octave above?

    I use a SATIII, using the program from Sanderson.

    Wim


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