This is a multi-part message in MIME format. ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment The question is strangely expressed, but I guess the teacher don't like the tone of the basses. We use many artifacts (each its own) on bass tuning to give the impression of more full tone than it is really. Beside that, non responsive hammer, keybed unseated, bad regulation, will always give an awful weak tone in the basses. I can't remember where I've seen the demonstration of that , but 1st partial of the big bass strings is produced (or reinforced on large grand's may be) by "phantom vibes" that appears created by "beats between the highest partials , the same process than the phantom octave sounding one octave below on organ or a good grand when playing a fifth in the octave 2. It may well be helped by an optimum string tension equalization while tuning, my guess being that when you tune and you hear that very precise spot where the sound is the stronger and the longer at the same time, that mean the tension on the 2 sides of the bridge is evened, and the bridge is then more responsive. (may be something about the other string's segment too ?) No real data to prove the point, but I use tone to know when the tension are equalized, and it is even not necessary to hardly settle the pin if so. Anyway not 2 tuners tune the same tone, even on big unichords the tone vary from one to another. IZaac OLEG Zoreil FRANCE PARIS (Nicest town on earth) -----Message d'origine----- De : caut-bounces@ptg.org [mailto:caut-bounces@ptg.org]De la part de Fred S. Sturm Envoye : jeudi 31 octobre 2002 23:17 A : College and University Technicians Objet : Re: 1st partial Wim, What kind of piano are we talking about? Steinway B or Hamilton? (Or somewhere between). Smaller the instrument, shorter the bass strings, equals much less lower partials as part of the tonal spectrum, regardless of tunings, voicing or whatever (though some scales are better than others). And, BTW, doing what you describe will excite ALL the partials of the upper note. How prominent the first partial of the upper note is will vary. Should at least be present, though. I walked next door to a vacant classroom and did what you describe on a Steinway B, and heard the first partial of the upper note all the way to A0/A1. All that said, do your best to humor the guy. I doubt very much he knows what the heck he's talking about (a little knowledge is a dangerous thing - he picked up some notion off a wall somewhere. I once spent considerable time explaining to our bassoon professor why the bass on his piano didn't match his little electronic tuner. All my notes were flat. Fancy that! He had been trying to match his tuner when playing his bassoon - first partials, that is - and even teaching his students the same malarky. Like I said, a _little_ knowledge . . .) Regards, Fred Sturm University of New Mexico Wimblees@aol.com wrote: One of the piano profs called me into his office and asked if I could tune the 1st octave so that more of the 1st partial can be heard. He played C2 while holding down C3, and the first partial sounded on C3. But when he held down C2, and played C1, the first partial wasn't there. Such was also the case in all the notes from A0 - B1. How can I tune that first octave to have the first partial sound on the octave above? I use a SATIII, using the program from Sanderson. Wim ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/caut.php/attachments/eb/50/65/64/attachment.htm ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment--
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